Nclex-Rn Practice Questions-Physıologıcal Integrıty-Physiological Adaptation Part 3
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Question 1 |
Signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) include:
A | Increased pulse. |
B | Lowered systolic pressure. |
C | Narrowed pulse pressure. |
D | Papilledema. |
Question 2 |
The nurse performs a follow-up assessment of a client who was involved in a motor vehicle accident and sustained massive head injuries. The client is weaned off the ventilator and is breathing independently. The nurse notices the client’s respirations have a rhythmic crescendo and decrescendo of rate and depth of respiration and include brief periods of apnea. This type of respiratory pattern is:
A | Apneustic. |
B | Ataxic. |
C | Cheyne-Stokes. |
D | Cluster. |
Question 3 |
In the unconscious client, noxious stimuli may elicit an abnormal motor response. When assessing a client, the nurse finds that in response to painful stimuli, the upper extremities exhibit flexion of the arm, wrist, and fingers with adduction of the limb. The lower extremity exhibits extension, internal rotation, and plantar flexion. This is known as:
A | Decerebrate posturing. |
B | Decorticate posturing. |
C | Reflex posturing. |
D | Superficial posturing. |
Question 4 |
Aspiration is defined as the passage of regurgitated gastric contents or other foreign materials into the trachea and down to the smaller air units. The most common and severest form of aspiration is the aspiration of gastric contents. If aspiration is suspected, the nurse should:
A | Contact the physician. |
B | Elevate the foot of the bed. |
C | Initiate oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. |
D | Lower the client’s head of bed. |
Question 5 |
The goals and effects of conscious sedation include the following:
A | Alteration of personality. |
B | Cooperation. |
C | Lowering of pain threshold. |
D | Major variation of vital signs. |
Question 6 |
Which sedation is typically achieved by administering a single, non-IV dose of a long-acting agent?
A | Conscious sedation. |
B | General anesthesia. |
C | Light sedation. |
D | Regional anesthesia. |
Question 7 |
Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method for monitoring oxygen saturation. The pulse oximeter is considered very accurate. However, several physiologic and technical factors limit the monitoring system. Physiologic limitations in pulse oximetry include:
A | Bright lights. |
B | Excessive motion. |
C | Incorrect placement of the probe. |
D | Poor tissue perfusion. |
Question 8 |
The nurse asks a client about an upcoming medical procedure. The client will be undergoing a thoracentesis for a large right pleural effusion. The nurse knows further teaching is necessary when the client states:
A | I cannot cough during the procedure. |
B | I will be on the ventilator during the procedure. |
C | I will be in a sitting position leaning forward. |
D | The doctor knows where the fluid is from the x-ray. |
Question 9 |
The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis occurs in:
A | Head trauma. |
B | Hypoxia. |
C | Steroid therapy. |
D | Uremia. |
Question 10 |
The nurse knows respiratory acidosis occurs in:
A | Diuretic therapy. |
B | Hypoxia. |
C | Oversedation. |
D | Potassium deficit. |
Question 11 |
Treatment of fluid and electrolyte disorders is based on:
A | Assessment of total body water and its distribution. |
B | Serum water concentrations. |
C | Total body electrolyte concentrations. |
D | Urine osmolality. |
Question 12 |
Which condition is characterized by weight loss, excessive thirst, and dry mucous membranes?
A | Hyperosmolality. |
B | Hypoosmolality. |
C | Volume depletion. |
D | Volume overload. |
Question 13 |
Pulmonary embolism and deep venous thrombosis (DVT) are two manifestations of the same disease. The risk factors for pulmonary embolism are the risk factors for thrombus formation within the venous circulation. These risk factors are known as Virchow’s triad and include:
A | Decreased central venous pressures. |
B | Hypocoagulability. |
C | Injury to the bone. |
D | Venous stasis. |
Question 14 |
Which electrolyte imbalance will the nurse find with hyperparathyroidism, Paget’s disease, adrenal insufficiency, and prolonged immobilization?
A | Hypercalcemia. |
B | Hypermagnesemia. |
C | Hypocalcemia. |
D | Hypomagnesemia. |
Question 15 |
A client is diagnosed with second-degree burns. The nurse expects the physician to order:
A | Application of cool water or saline-soaked gauze to the burn. |
B | Application of ice to the burn. |
C | Cleansing with betadine. |
D | Cleansing with hydrogen peroxide. |
Question 16 |
The nurse knows which burn involves the entire thickness of the skin?
A | First degree. |
B | Second degree. |
C | Third degree. |
D | Fifth degree. |
Question 17 |
Ionizing radiation is the only form of radiation proven to cause human cancer. Which are examples of ionizing radiation?
A | Cell-phones. |
B | Microwaves. |
C | Radio waves. |
D | X-rays. |
Question 18 |
Which diagnostic test utilizes a huge electromagnet that detects hidden tumors by mapping the vibrations of the various atoms in the body on a computer screen?
A | Computerized axial tomography (CAT scan). |
B | Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). |
C | Radiotherapy. |
D | Ultrasound. |
Question 19 |
Which is manifested by an increase in weight and peripheral edema or ascites?
A | Dehydration. |
B | Hyperosmolality. |
C | Volume depletion. |
D | Volume overload. |
Question 20 |
Thyroid radioactive iodine uptake and scan is usually performed on clients with an established diagnosis of:
A | Hypothyroidism. |
B | Myxedema. |
C | Thyroid storm. |
D | Thyrotoxicosis. |
Question 21 |
Which form of therapy uses radiation to kill cancerous cells?
A | Chemotherapy. |
B | Chirotherapy. |
C | Radiotherapy. |
D | Ultratherapy. |
Question 22 |
Nurses handling radiation sources can minimize exposure to radiation by recognizing the importance of:
A | Area. |
B | Density. |
C | Time. |
D | Volume. |
Question 23 |
The success of treatment of local radiation depends upon:
A | Extent of tissue injury. |
B | Rate of therapy. |
C | The designated area. |
D | Use of systemic medications. |
Question 24 |
A client complains of progressively worsening shortness of breath since cutting the grass 3 days ago. The client has a history of asthma. The nurse knows this client is having a severe exacerbation and should immediately receive:
A | High doses of inhaled short-acting beta2- agonist. |
B | Intravenous fluids. |
C | Oxygen. |
D | Systemic corticosteroids. |
Question 25 |
Which type of burn is very painful and heals without scarring or contractures in approximately 7 to 14 days?
A | First degree. |
B | Third degree. |
C | Fourth degree. |
D | Deep second degree. |
Question 26 |
A client’s arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal pH 7.0, HCO3 24 mEq/L, PaCO2 56 mm Hg. Which illness does this indicate?
A | Metabolic acidosis. |
B | Metabolic alkalosis. |
C | Respiratory acidosis. |
D | Respiratory alkalosis. |
Question 27 |
A client’s arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal pH 7.2, HCO3 22 mEq/L, and PaCO2 40 mm Hg. Which illness does this indicate?
A | Metabolic acidosis. |
B | Metabolic alkalosis. |
C | Respiratory acidosis. |
D | Respiratory alkalosis. |
Question 28 |
A client’s arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal pH 7.6, HCO3 26 mEq/L, and PaCO2 38 mm Hg. Which illness does this indicate?
A | Metabolic acidosis. |
B | Metabolic alkalosis. |
C | Respiratory acidosis. |
D | Respiratory alkalosis. |
Question 29 |
A client’s arterial blood gases (ABG) reveal pH 7.8, HCO3 26 mEq/L, and PaCO2 38 mm Hg. Which illness does this indicate?
A | Metabolic acidosis. |
B | Metabolic alkalosis. |
C | Respiratory acidosis. |
D | Respiratory alkalosis. |
Question 30 |
The nurse cares for a postoperative client who has a temperature of 103 degrees Farenheit. The nurse knows the causes of postoperative fever include:
A | Abscess formation. |
B | Blood transfusion. |
C | Endocrine disorders. |
D | Warm environment. |
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