Nclex-Rn Practice Questions-Microbiology Disorders Associated with the Immune System

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Question 1

All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT

A	it occurs in the presence of an antigen.
B	it is synonymous with "allergy."
C	it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time.
D	it is due to an altered immune response.
E	it requires previous exposure to an antigen.

Question 2

Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection?

A	Virions may remain latent.
B	There may be persistent yeast infections.
C	Infection may initially be asymptomatic.
D	The disease does not progress to AIDS.
E	All of the answers are correct.

Question 3

Which of the following regions has the greatest distribution of HIV infection and AIDS in the world?

A	North America
B	Eastern Europe and Central Asia
C	South and Southeast Asia
D	sub-Saharan Africa
E	Latin America

Question 4

Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT

A	termination of viral DNA.
B	inhibition of viral proteases.
C	blockage of viral attachment.
D	prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA.
E	destruction of viral ribosomes.

Question 5

Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with

A	IgE antibodies.
B	macrophages.
C	IgG antibodies.
D	complement.
E	histamine.

Question 6

All of the following regarding "immune privileged sites" are true EXCEPT

A	they include corneal and brain tissue.
B	they do not have lymphatic vessels.
C	they are rarely rejected.
D	they include any tissue transplanted from a pig.
E	they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus.

Question 7

All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT

A	asthma.
B	dust allergies.
C	penicillin allergic reactions.
D	pollen allergies.
E	transplant rejections.

Question 8

All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura. Which occurs first?

A	Antibodies and complement react with platelets.
B	Antibodies against haptens are formed.
C	Drug binds to platelets.
D	Platelets are destroyed.
E	Purpura occurs on the skin.

Question 9

Immunodeficiencies are a result of all of the following EXCEPT

A	HIV infection.
B	cyclosporine.
C	DiGeorge syndrome.
D	Hodgkin's disease.
E	autoimmune diseases.

Question 10

Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction?

A	Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens.
B	Antibodies are not made.
C	Cells are killed.
D	Immune complexes form.
E	Mediate by T cells.

Question 11

Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to

A	IgE antibodies.
B	neutrophils.
C	cytokines.
D	IgG antibodies.
E	antigens.

Question 12

In the serological method for tissue typing, if human cells expressing HLA-I are mixed with anti-HLA-I, complement, and trypan blue, what would indicate the cells are HLA-I?

A	Enzyme is released from neutrophils.
B	Cells are damaged by complement.
C	Trypan blue enters the cells.
D	Anti-HLA antibodies bind to HLAs on lymphocytes.
E	None of the answers are correct; the T cells are missing.

Question 13

In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints. This is an example of

A	cytotoxic autoimmunity.
B	immune complex autoimmunity.
C	cell-mediated autoimmunity.
D	immunosuppression.
E	acquired immunodeficiency.

Question 14

Desensitization involves injection of

A	antigens.
B	IgG antibodies.
C	IgE antibodies.
D	antihistamine.
E	histamine.

Question 15

Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is

A	heterosexual intercourse.
B	homosexual intercourse.
C	intravenous drug use.
D	blood transfusions.
E	nosocomial.

Question 16

Which of the following is the least likely vaccine against HIV?

A	attenuated virus
B	glycoprotein
C	protein core
D	subunit
E	All of these vaccines are equally likely.

Question 17

Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of

A	IgG and IgA complexes in joints.
B	IgA antibodies in joints.
C	IgD and IgE complexes in joints.
D	complement in joints.
E	complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.

Question 18

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are

A	found in basophils and mast cells.
B	antibodies.
C	antigens.
D	antigen-antibody complexes.
E	the proteins of the complement system.

Question 19

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis?

A	hay fever
B	asthma
C	shock
D	hives
E	immunodeficiency

Question 20

Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+?

A	anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh
B	anti-A, anti-Rh
C	anti-A
D	anti-B, anti-Rh
E	anti-B

Question 21

Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible?

A	autograft
B	allograft
C	isograft
D	xenotransplant
E	All of these types of transplant are equally compatible.

Question 22

When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood

A	has O type antigens on their red blood cells.
B	will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens.
C	will lack A and B red blood cell antigens.
D	lacks HLA and MHC antigens.
E	will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma.

Question 23

Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n)

A	skin graft.
B	bone marrow transplant.
C	blood transfusion.
D	Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus.
E	corneal transplant.

Question 24

A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of

A	delayed cell-mediated immunity.
B	autoimmunity.
C	acute contact dermatitis.
D	psoriasis.
E	innate immunity.

Question 25

A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with

A	tumor-specific antigens.
B	CTLs.
C	CTLs and activated macrophages.
D	activated macrophages.
E	CD+ T cells.

Question 26

The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to

A	destruction of the antigen.
B	complement activation.
C	phagocytosis.
D	antibodies against self.
E	cytokines.

Question 27

Which of the following statements about human embryonic stem cells is TRUE?

A	They are obtained in great numbers from umbilical cords of newborns.
B	They express no MHC II antigens.
C	They are pluripotent.
D	They are typically obtained from the zygote stage of embryonic development.
E	They are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic development.

Question 28

Allergic contact dermatitis is due to

A	sensitized T cells.
B	IgG antibodies.
C	IgE antibodies.
D	IgM antibodies.
E	activated macrophages.

Question 29

All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT

A	they can detect antibodies but not antigens.
B	they can be used to diagnose various diseases.
C	reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells.
D	they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes.
E	they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation.

Question 30

The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of

A	IgE.
B	IgG.
C	antihistamine.
D	antigen.
E	RhoGAM.

Question 31

Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE?

A	They involve helper T cells.
B	They involve IgE antibodies.
C	The symptoms are due to histamine.
D	Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils.
E	The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen.

Question 32

Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE?

A	Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation.
B	Reactions are not apparent for a day or more.
C	Cytokines initiate tissue damage.
D	Allergic contact dermatitis is an example.
E	Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example.

Question 33

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an

A	Rh+ mother with an Rh- fetus.
B	Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus.
C	AB mother with a B fetus.
D	AB mother with an O fetus.
E	Rh- mother and an A fetus.

Question 34

Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy?

A	It neutralizes the growth factor EGF.
B	It acts as an immunotoxin to target and kill cancer cells.
C	It is used to treat some breast cancer patients.
D	It is a vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.
E	It is an endotoxin that stimulates TNF by macrophages.

Question 35

Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin?

A	immunologic enhancement
B	immunologic surveillance
C	immunotherapy
D	immunosuppression
E	immune complex

Question 36

All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccine has not been developed EXCEPT

A	there is no known animal model of natural immunity for HIV infection.
B	use of a weakened virus would potentially transmit the infection.
C	small, inexpensive animals which could be used for HIV vaccine research are not available.
D	vaccines are not effective against viral infections.
E	HIV has a high mutation rate so one vaccination would not be effective to treat the world-wide pandemic.

Question 37

Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause

A	immunologic enhancement.
B	immunologic surveillance.
C	immunotherapy.
D	immunosuppression.
E	autoimmunity.

Question 38

HIV can evade host antibodies by

A	remaining an inactive provirus.
B	causing cell-to-cell fusion.
C	remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and virions remaining latent in vacuoles.
D	lowering the CD4+ cell count.
E	virions remaining latent in vacuoles.

Question 39

During the asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is diagnosed by

A	detecting viral RNA.
B	detecting antibodies against HIV.
C	counting CD4+ T cells.
D	counting CD8+ T cells.
E	the Western blot test.

Question 40

HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on

A	T helper cells.
B	macrophages.
C	dendritic cells.
D	T helper cells and macrophages.
E	T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

Question 41

Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on

A	gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor.
B	gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5.
C	gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor.
D	gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane.
E	CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor.

Question 42

The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection?

A	phase 1
B	phase 2
C	phase 3
D	initial phase
E	asymptomatic phase

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