Nclex-Rn Practice Questions-Care Of The Adult - Neurosensory Disorders Part 2
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Question 1 |
A client has just begun exhibiting signs of myasthenia gravis. The nurse anticipates assessment of the client to include:
A | dysphagia. |
B | fatigue improving at the end of the day. |
C | ptosis. |
D | respiratory distress. |
Question 2 |
What is the most important nursing intervention for a client having a tonicclonic seizure?
A | Maintaining a patent airway |
B | Timing the duration of the seizure |
C | Noting the origin of seizure activity |
D | Inserting a padded tongue blade to prevent the client from biting his tongue |
Question 3 |
A client recalls smelling an unpleasant odor before his seizure. What would the nurse document this as?
A | Atonic seizure |
B | Aura |
C | Icterus |
D | Postictal experience |
Question 4 |
A client has just started taking phenytoin (Dilantin) and asks the nurse if there are any adverse effects to be aware of. The best response by the nurse is:
A | dry mouth. |
B | furry tongue. |
C | somnolence. |
D | tachycardia. |
Question 5 |
A client asks the nurse if he can drink alcohol while taking phenytoin. What is the best response by the nurse?
A | Alcohol increases phenytoin activity. |
B | Alcohol raises the seizure threshold. |
C | Alcohol impairs judgment and coordination. |
D | Alcohol decreases the effectiveness of phenytoin. |
Question 6 |
When assessing vital signs in a client with a seizure disorder, which measure is used?
A | Checking for a pulse deficit |
B | Checking for pulsus paradoxus |
C | Taking axillary instead of oral temperatures |
D | Checking the blood pressure for an auscultatory gap |
Question 7 |
A client in status epilepticus arrives at the emergency department accompanied by a family member. The nurse asks the client’s family member if anything may have predisposed the client to this condition. The nurse is most concerned when the family member states that the client:
A | abruptly stopped anticonvulsant therapy. |
B | recently traveled by airplane. |
C | had exposure to sunlight. |
D | recently suffered an upper respiratory infection. |
Question 8 |
A client with suspected multiple sclerosis (MS) undergoes a lumbar puncture. The nurse understands that the results of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) may show:
A | blood or increased red blood cells. |
B | elevated white blood cells (WBCs) or pus. |
C | increased glucose concentrations. |
D | increased protein levels. |
Question 9 |
A nurse observes a client experiencing involuntary, jerking, rhythmic movements of the eyes. The nurse documents this which condition?
A | Diplopia |
B | Exophthalmos |
C | Nystagmus |
D | Oculogyric crisis |
Question 10 |
Which symptom occurs initially in Parkinson’s disease?
A | Akinesia |
B | Aspiration of food |
C | Dementia |
D | Pill rolling movements of the hand |
Question 11 |
One hour after receiving pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon), a client reports difficulty swallowing and excessive respiratory secretions. The nurse notifies the physician and prepares to administer which medication?
A | Additional pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon) |
B | Atropine |
C | Edrophonium (Tensilon) |
D | Acyclovir (Zovirax) |
Question 12 |
A client with suspected myasthenia gravis is to undergo a Tensilon test. The client asks if the Tensilon can be used to treat myasthenia gravis. The best response by the nurse is:
A | “It isn’t available in an oral form.” |
B | “With repeated use, immunosuppression may occur.” |
C | “Dry mouth and abdominal cramps may be intolerable adverse effects.” |
D | “The short half-life of Tensilon makes it impractical for long-term use.” |
Question 13 |
The nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with glaucoma about the importance of medication compliance. The nurse determines that teaching has been effective when the client states that noncompliance may result in:
A | diplopia. |
B | permanent vision loss. |
C | progressive loss of peripheral vision. |
D | pupillary constriction. |
Question 14 |
A nurse is evaluating a client to determine the extent of Parkinson’s disease. The nurse would observe for which symptom?
A | Bulging eyeballs |
B | Diminished distal sensation |
C | Increased dopamine levels |
D | Muscle rigidity |
Question 15 |
A client is admitted with Parkinson’s disease. The client’s face is expressionless, and the client’s speech is monotone. Which of the following observations by the nurse is most accurate?
A | The client is most likely depressed and should be left alone. |
B | These are common symptoms of Parkinson’s disease that produce an undesired façade of an alert and responsive individual. |
C | The client’s antipsychotic medication may need to be adjusted. |
D | The client probably has dementia. |
Question 16 |
A client who was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse if there are any conditions or activities that may exacerbate MS. What is the best response by the nurse?
A | Pregnancy |
B | Range-of-motion (ROM) exercises |
C | Swimming |
D | Urine retention |
Question 17 |
To evaluate the effectiveness of levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet), a nurse should assess the client for:
A | improved visual acuity. |
B | decreased dyskinesia. |
C | reduction in short-term memory. |
D | lessened rigidity and tremor. |
Question 18 |
Which antiparkinsonian drug can cause drug tolerance or toxicity if taken for too long at one time?
A | Amantadine (Symmetrel) |
B | Levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet) |
C | Pergolide |
D | Selegiline (Eldepryl) |
Question 19 |
A young female client has been recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) and wants more information on the disease. In teaching the client, which statement by the nurse is most accurate?
A | MS is an autoimmune disease. |
B | MS is more common in men than women. |
C | MS is characterized by remyelination. |
D | MS is an acute and curable disease. |
Question 20 |
A client is experiencing early symptoms of multiple sclerosis (MS). What would the nurse expect to assess?
A | Diplopia |
B | Grief |
C | Paralysis |
D | Dementia |
Question 21 |
Two days after starting therapy with trihexyphenidyl, a client complains of a dry mouth. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A | Offer the client ice chips and frequent sips of water. |
B | Withhold the drug and notify the physician. |
C | Change the client’s diet to clear liquid until the symptoms subside. |
D | Encourage the use of supplemental puddings and shakes to maintain weight. |
Question 22 |
The most important intervention for nurse to implement when giving phenytoin (Dilantin) to a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube for feeding is:
A | check the phenytoin level after giving the drug to check for toxicity. |
B | elevate the head of the bed before giving phenytoin through the NG tube. |
C | give phenytoin 1 hour before or 2 hours after NG tube feedings to ensure absorption. |
D | verify proper placement of the NG tube by placing the end of the tube in a glass of water and observing for bubbles. |
Question 23 |
A nurse is preparing to administer pilocarpine 1%, eyedrops to a client. The order reads: Instill 2 gtt both eyes four times a day. What is the correct administration?
A | Two drops of the drug in both eyes four times daily |
B | Two drops on the sclera of both eyes two times daily |
C | Two drops over the lacrimal duct of both eyes four times daily |
D | Two drops of the drug toward the nasal side of each conjunctival sac three times daily |
Question 24 |
The nurse is teaching a client with multiple sclerosis (MS) about ways to avoid exacerbation of the disease. What is the best information for the nurse to include?
A | Patching the affected eye |
B | Sleeping 8 hours each night |
C | Taking hot baths for relaxation |
D | Drinking 1½ to 2 qt (1.5 to 2 L) of fluid daily |
Question 25 |
When assessing a client with glaucoma, a nurse expects which finding?
A | Complaints of double vision |
B | Complaints of halos around lights |
C | Intraocular pressure of 15 mm Hg |
D | Soft globe on palpation |
Question 26 |
A 20-year-old client with myasthenia gravis will undergo plasmapheresis. Which action describes the purpose of this procedure?
A | Preventing exacerbations during pregnancy |
B | Removing T and B lymphocytes that attack acetylcholine receptors |
C | Delivering acetylcholinesterase inhibitor directly into the bloodstream |
D | Separating and removing acetylcholine receptor antibodies from the blood |
Question 27 |
A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is started on 20 mg of glatiramer (Copaxone) subcutaneously daily. Immediately after the injection, the client experiences flushing and chest pain. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A | Call a code. |
B | Call the physician to inform him of the client’s adverse reaction. |
C | Administer oxygen. |
D | Monitor the client to see if the symptoms quickly dissipate. |
Question 28 |
Which client would be most at risk for secondary Parkinson’s disease caused by pharmacotherapy?
A | A 30-year-old client with schizophrenia taking chlorpromazine (Thorazine) |
B | A 50-year-old client taking nitroglycerin tablets for angina |
C | A 60-year-old client taking prednisone for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease |
D | A 75-year-old client using naproxen for rheumatoid arthritis |
Question 29 |
The laboratory has just notified the nurse that a client on the unit has a phenytoin level of 32 mg/dl. The nurse would expect the client to display which symptom(s)?
A | Ataxia and confusion |
B | Sodium depletion |
C | Tonic-clonic seizure |
D | Urinary incontinence |
Question 30 |
A client with new-onset seizures of unknown cause is started on phenytoin (Dilantin), 750 mg I.V. now and 100 mg by mouth, three times a day. The nurse understands that the I.V. loading dose was given for which reason?
A | To ensure that the drug reaches the cerebrospinal fluid |
B | To prevent the need for surgical excision of the epileptic focus |
C | To reduce secretions in case another seizure occurs |
D | To more quickly attain therapeutic levels |
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