Nclex-Rn Practice Questions-Care Of The Adult -Cardiovascular Disorders Part 3
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Question 1 |
The nurse in the cardiac unit is reviewing the conditions of the assigned clients to determine if a risk for cardiogenic shock is present. The client most at risk presents with which condition?
A | Acute myocardial infarction (MI) |
B | Coronary artery disease (CAD) |
C | Decreased hemoglobin level |
D | Hypotension |
Question 2 |
The nurse anticipates that a client with intermittent claudication will receive which medication?
A | Analgesics |
B | Warfarin (Coumadin) |
C | Heparin |
D | Pentoxifylline (Trental) |
Question 3 |
A client is admitted to the unit with intermittent claudication. Which of the following responses by the nurse would most accurately explain the cause of the condition to the client?
A | Inadequate blood supply |
B | Elevated leg position |
C | Dependent leg position |
D | Inadequate muscle oxygenation |
Question 4 |
Which term best describes the findings on cautious palpation of the vein in typical superficial thrombophlebitis?
A | Dilated |
B | Knotty |
C | Smooth |
D | Tortuous |
Question 5 |
A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate to relieve the pain?
A | Application of heat |
B | Bed rest |
C | Exercise |
D | Leg elevation |
Question 6 |
Which term refers to the condition of blood coagulating faster than normal, causing thrombin and other clotting factors to multiply?
A | Embolus |
B | Hypercoagulability |
C | Venous stasis |
D | Venous wall injury |
Question 7 |
A client admitted for a lower extremity deep vein thrombosis is experiencing dyspnea, chest pain, and diminished breath sounds. The nurse suspects this client may be developing which condition?
A | Hemothorax |
B | Pneumothorax |
C | Pulmonary embolism |
D | Pulmonary hypertension |
Question 8 |
A client has undergone ligation and stripping. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement postoperatively?
A | Sitting |
B | Bed rest |
C | Ice packs |
D | Elastic leg compression |
Question 9 |
The nurse should assess a client with secondary varicose veins for which signs and symptoms?
A | Pallor and severe pain |
B | Severe pain and edema |
C | Edema and pigmentation |
D | Absent hair growth and pigmentation |
Question 10 |
Which condition is caused by increased hydrostatic pressure and chronic venous stasis?
A | Venous occlusion |
B | Cool extremities |
C | Nocturnal calf muscle cramps |
D | Diminished blood supply to the feet |
Question 11 |
The nurse would assess a client with varicose veins for which symptoms?
A | Fatigue and pressure |
B | Fatigue and cool feet |
C | Sharp pain and fatigue |
D | Sharp pain and cool feet |
Question 12 |
A nurse determines that a client with varicose veins understands the cause of primary varicose veins when the client states which cause?
A | Hypertension |
B | Pregnancy |
C | Thrombosis |
D | Trauma |
Question 13 |
Which statement by the nurse accurately explains the need for a client with hypertension to obtain an annual eye exam?
A | “By examining your corneas, an ophthalmologist can visualize microvascular hemorrhages in your eyes.” |
B | “By examining the fovea in your eyes, an ophthalmologist can visualize microvascular venous occlusions in your eyes.” |
C | “By examining the retina in your eyes, an ophthalmologist can detect changes in the arteries in your eyes.” |
D | “By examining the sclera of your eyes, an ophthalmologist can detect changes in the arteries in your eyes.” |
Question 14 |
Which of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates an understanding of why furosemide (Lasix) is administered to treat hypertension?
A | It dilates peripheral blood vessels. |
B | It decreases sympathetic cardioacceleration. |
C | It inhibits the angiotensin-converting enzyme. |
D | It inhibits reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle. |
Question 15 |
Which term would the nurse use to describe persistently elevated blood pressure with an unknown cause?
A | Accelerated hypertension |
B | Malignant hypertension |
C | Primary hypertension |
D | Secondary hypertension |
Question 16 |
The nurse is teaching a client about blood pressure and hormones. Which of the following responses indicates the client understands which hormone raises arterial pressure and promotes venous return?
A | Angiotensin I |
B | Angiotensin II |
C | Thyroid hormone |
D | Insulin |
Question 17 |
Which physiological change would indicate that the baroreceptors in the carotid artery walls and aorta are functioning?
A | Changes in blood pressure |
B | Changes in arterial oxygen tension |
C | Changes in arterial carbon dioxide tension |
D | Changes in heart rate |
Question 18 |
When hypertension occurs, which responses by the kidneys help normalize blood pressure?
A | The kidneys retain sodium and excrete water. |
B | The kidneys excrete sodium and excrete water. |
C | The kidneys retain sodium and retain water. |
D | The kidneys excrete sodium and retain water. |
Question 19 |
Which sound will be heard during the first phase of Korotkoff’s sounds?
A | Disappearance of sounds |
B | Faint, clear tapping sounds |
C | A murmur or swishing sounds |
D | Soft, muffling sounds |
Question 20 |
Which is the most important instrument used as a diagnostic and monitoring tool for determining the severity of a shock state?
A | Arterial line |
B | Indwelling urinary catheter |
C | Electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor |
D | Pulmonary artery catheter |
Question 21 |
Which drug is most commonly used to treat cardiogenic shock?
A | Dopamine |
B | Enalapril (Vasotec) |
C | Furosemide (Lasix) |
D | Metoprolol (Lopressor) |
Question 22 |
The nurse is planning care for a client in cardiogenic shock. What is the priority goal?
A | Correct hypoxia. |
B | Prevent infarction. |
C | Correct metabolic acidosis. |
D | Increase myocardial oxygen supply. |
Question 23 |
Which diagnostic study can determine when cellular metabolism becomes anaerobic and when pH decreases?
A | Arterial blood gas (ABG) levels |
B | Complete blood count (CBC) |
C | Electrocardiogram (ECG) |
D | Lung scan |
Question 24 |
The nurse determines that a client at risk for the development of cardiogenic shock would present with which of the following?
A | Decreased heart rate |
B | Decreased cardiac index |
C | Decreased blood pressure |
D | Decreased cerebral blood flow |
Question 25 |
Which of the following parameters increases as myocardial oxygen consumption increases?
A | Preload, afterload, and cerebral blood flow |
B | Preload, afterload, and renal blood flow |
C | Preload, afterload, contractility, and heart rate |
D | Preload, afterload, cerebral blood flow, and heart rate |
Question 26 |
A client is experiencing acute pulmonary edema. What is the best position for the nurse to place the client in?
A | Lying flat in bed |
B | Left side-lying |
C | High Fowler’s position |
D | Semi-Fowler’s position |
Question 27 |
Which blood gas abnormality is initially most suggestive of pulmonary edema?
A | Anoxia |
B | Hypercapnia |
C | Hyperoxygenation |
D | Hypocapnia |
Question 28 |
The nurse is assessing a client who is displaying the earliest sign of cardiogenic shock. The nurse would document this assessment finding as:
A | cyanosis. |
B | decreased urine output. |
C | presence of fourth heart sound (S4). |
D | altered level of consciousness. |
Question 29 |
Four clients have been admitted to the cardiac intensive care unit after experiencing acute myocardial infarctions. The nurse reviews each client’s chart to determine the assessment of cardiac damage and risk for development of cardiogenic shock. What is the percentage of damage that places the client at risk for the development of shock?
A | 10% |
B | 25% |
C | 40% |
D | 90% |
Question 30 |
A client has a continuous blood pressure reading of 142/90 mm Hg. The reading is interpreted as indicative of what?
A | Stage 2 hypertension |
B | Prehypertension |
C | Stage 1 hypertension |
D | Normal |
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