Nclex-Rn Practice Questions-Care of Childbearing Families Prenatal and Antepartum Management
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Question 1 |
The nurse is counseling the client who is trying to become pregnant. To promote fetal health when the client is unaware of a pregnancy, the nurse should stress the inclusion of which nutrient in daily food intake?
A | Potassium |
B | Calcium |
C | Folic acid |
D | Sodium |
Question 2 |
The nurse is caring for the antepartum client with a velamentous cord insertion. The client asks what symptom she would most likely experience first if one of the vessels should tear. The nurse should respond that she would most likely experience which symptom first?
A | Vaginal bleeding |
B | Abdominal cramping |
C | Uterine contractions |
D | Placental abruption |
Question 3 |
The nurse is caring for the pregnant client. The nurse identifies that the use of which street drug places the client at risk for placental abruption?
A | Heroin |
B | Marijuana |
C | Oxycodone |
D | Cocaine |
Question 4 |
The pregnant client tells the nurse that she smokes two packs per day (PPD) of cigarettes, has smoked in other pregnancies, and has never had any problems. What is the nurse’s best response?
A | “I’m glad that your other pregnancies went well. Smoking can cause both maternal and fetal problems, and it is best if you could quit smoking.” |
B | “You need to stop smoking for the baby’s sake. You could have a spontaneous abortion with this pregnancy if you continue to smoke.” |
C | “Smoking can lead to having a large baby, which can make delivery difficult. You may even need a cesarean section.” |
D | “Smoking less would eliminate the risk for your baby, and you would feel healthier during your pregnancy.” |
Question 5 |
The nurse is screening prenatal clients who may be caniers for potential genetic abnormalities. Which ethnic group should the nurse identify as having the lowest risk for hemoglobinopathies, such as sickle cell disease and thalassemia?
A | African descent |
B | Southeast Asian descent |
C | Scandinavian descent |
D | Mediterranean descent |
Question 6 |
The pregnant client presents with vaginal bleeding and increasing cramping. Her exam reveals that the cervical os is open. Which term should the nurse expect to see in the client’s chart notation to most accurately describe the client’ condition?
A | Ectopic pregnancy |
B | Complete abortion |
C | Imminent abortion |
D | Incomplete abortion |
Question 7 |
The client who is actively bleeding due to a spontaneous abortion asks the nurse why this is happening. The nurse advises the client that the majority of first-trimester losses are related to which problem?
A | Cervical incompetence |
B | Chronic maternal disease |
C | Poor implantation |
D | Chromosomal abnormalities |
Question 8 |
The nurse is counseling the pregnant client who has painful hemorrhoids. Which initial recommendation should be made by the nurse?
A | Apply steroid-based creams. |
B | Modify the diet to include more fiber. |
C | Treat these surgically before delivery. |
D | Increase intake of foods with flavonoids. |
Question 9 |
The first=trimester pregnant client asks the nurse if the activities in which she participates are safe in the first trimester. Which activity should the nurse verify as a safe activity during the client’s first trimester?
A | Hair coloring |
B | Hot tub use |
C | Pesticide use |
D | Sexual activity |
Question 10 |
The pregnant client (GlPO) in the first trimester tells the nurse that she is anxious about losing her baby, prenatal care, and her labor and birth. Which teaching need should the nurse identify as priority?
A | Sexual relations with her spouse |
B | Fetal growth and development |
C | Options for labor and delivery |
D | Preparing needed items for the baby |
Question 11 |
The nurse assesses the fundal height for multiple pregnant clients. For which client should the nurse conclude that a fundal height measurement is most accurate?
A | The pregnant client with uterine fibroids |
B | The pregnant client who is obese |
C | The pregnant client with polyhydramnios |
D | The pregnant client experiencing fetal movement |
Question 12 |
The client tells the nurse, “Most days, I am so happy I am pregnant, but other days, I am not sure that I am ready to have a baby.” Which is the most accurate response from the nurse?
A | “This is such a happy time in your life. You need to be optimistic to feel happy.” |
B | “How does your spouse feel about the pregnancy? I hope he is happy about the baby.” |
C | “Feeling differently from day to day is normal. How do you feel today?” |
D | “Why do you feel this way? Is there something I can do to make it better for you?” |
Question 13 |
The client, who is Chinese American and pregnant, is receiving nutritional counseling about the need for increased amounts of calcium in her diet. Which response by the nurse is most helpful when the client states she does not consume any dairy products?
A | “Tell me how you perceive dairy products in your culture.” |
B | “Try having a glass of soy milk at each meal and at bedtime.” |
C | “Tell me about your intake of fortified tom and leafy green vegetables.” |
D | “Rice milk fortified with calcium and nettle tea are good calcium choices.” |
Question 14 |
The client tells the nurse that she is using cocoa butter on her abdomen to prevent stretch marks. Which is the most accurate response from the nurse?
A | “That is wonderfull. If you continue to use cocoa butter daily, you should have no stretch marks after delivery.” |
B | “The cocoa butter will not prevent stretch marks completely, but it will help to reduce their number.” |
C | “The cocoa butter will not prevent stretch marks but Will decrease the appearance of the linea nigra.” |
D | “Cocoa butter does not prevent stretch marks, but it soothes itching that occurs as your abdomen enlarges.” |
Question 15 |
The nurse is teaching the pregnant client during her first trimester. The nurse identifies that which decision is most important for her to make first?
A | Bottle versus breastfeeding |
B | Labor and delivery location |
C | Pain management during labor |
D | Method for delivery of the baby |
Question 16 |
The nurse is counseling the client who is pregnant. The nurse should teach that which assessment finding requires follow-up with the HCP?
A | Dependent edema |
B | Edema in the hands |
C | Generalized edema |
D | Edema occurring every evening |
Question 17 |
The client expresses concerns related to nausea in the first trimester of pregnancy. Which recommendation should the nurse make?
A | Eat crackers while still in bed in the morning. |
B | Lie down and rest whenever nausea occurs. |
C | Eat more frequently throughout the day. |
D | Avoid food items containing ginger |
Question 18 |
The nurse is providing nutrition counseling to the client during her first prenatal clinical visit. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that the client has an understanding of some of the nutritional requirements during pregnancy?
A | “I can eat cheese as an alternative to milk, as I don’t care for milk.” |
B | “I should be eating more at each meal because I’m eating for two.” |
C | “I will need to limit my calories because I am already overweight.” |
D | “I should limit myself to eating only three healthy meals per day.” |
Question 19 |
The nurse is reviewing the medication history of the client during preconception counseling. The client reports taking isotretinoin for acne. Which is the nurse’s best response?
A | “Stop taking isotretinoin now! It can cause serious birth defects if you become pregnant.” |
B | “You need to be on some type of birth control right now. Getting pregnant is not an option.” |
C | “Talk with your HCP about changing isotretinoin before you consider becoming pregnant.” |
D | “Once you are off of isotretinoin for treating acne, you can then safely become pregnant.” |
Question 20 |
The nurse evaluates the pregnant client with sickle cell disease during her second trimester. The nurse should identify which manifestation as being related to sickle cell disease and not the pregnancy?
A | Hand and lower extremities edema |
B | 2- Elevated serum blood glucose level |
C | Decreased oxygen saturation level |
D | Elevated blood pressure |
Question 21 |
The pregnant client has an abnormal l-hour glucose screen and completes a 3-hour, 1OO-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Which test results should the nurse interpret as being abnormal?
A | Fasting blood glucose = 104 mg/dL |
B | 1-hour = 179 mg/dL |
C | 2-hour = 146 mg/dL |
D | 3-hour = 129 mg/dL |
Question 22 |
The nurse is counseling the client who has SLE. The client tells the nurse that she plans to become pregnant in the next year. Which response by the nurse is correct?
A | “It is best to plan for your pregnancy when you have been in remission for 6 months.” |
B | “Having systemic lupus erythematosus will not impact your pregnancy in any way.” |
C | “Your chances of having an infant with congenital malformations are increased with SLE.” |
D | “You will need to be scheduled for a cesarean delivery to prevent disease transmission.” |
Question 23 |
The client presents with vaginal bleeding at 7 weeks. Which action should be taken by the nurse first?
A | Take the client’s vital signs |
B | Prepare examination equipment |
C | Give 2 liters oxygen per nasal cannula |
D | Assess the client’s response to the situation |
Question 24 |
The pregnant client asks the nurse, who is teaching a prepared childbirth class, when she should expect to feel fetal movement. The nurse responds that fetal movement usually can first be felt during which time frame?
A | 8 to 12 weeks of pregnancy |
B | 12 to 16 weeks of pregnancy |
C | 18 to 20 weeks of pregnancy |
D | 22 to 26 weeks of pregnancy |
Question 25 |
The nurse is providing nutrition counseling to a primigravida who is 10 weeks pregnant. Which meal choice stated by the client indicates she needs additional information?
A | Black beans, wild rice, collard greens |
B | Dry cereal, milk, dried cranberries |
C | Tuna, broccoli, baked potato |
D | Beef strips, lentils, red peppers |
Question 26 |
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory report from the first prenatal visit of the pregnant client. Which laboratory result should the nurse most definitely discuss with the HCP?
A | Hemoglobin 11 gdL; hematocrit 33% |
B | White blood cell (WBC) count: 7000/mm3 |
C | Pap smear: human papilloma virus changes |
D | Urine pH: 7 .4; specific gravity 1.015 |
Question 27 |
The nurse is caring for the client who is Rh negative at 13 weeks’ gestation. The client is having cramping and has moderate vaginal bleeding. Which HCP order should the nurse question?
A | Administer Rho(D) imnmne globulin (RhoGAM). |
B | Obtain a beta human chorionic gonadotropin level (BHCG). |
C | Schedule for an immediate ultrasound. |
D | Place on continuous external fetal monitoring. |
Question 28 |
The nurse is caring for the pregnant client at 20 weeks’ gestation. At what level should the clinic nurse expect to palpate the client’s uterine height?
A | Two finger-breadths above the symphysis pubis |
B | Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus |
C | At the level of the umbilicus |
D | Two finger-breadths above the umbilicus |
Question 29 |
The 22—year-old client, who is experiencing vaginal bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy, fears that she has lost her baby at 8 weeks. Which definitive test result should indicate to the nurse that the client’s fetus has been lost?
A | Falling beta human chorionic gonadotropin (BHCG) measurement |
B | Low progesterone measurement |
C | Ultrasound showing a lack of fetal cardiac activity |
D | Ultrasound determining crown—rump length |
Question 30 |
The 22-year-old client tells the clinic nurse that her last menstrual period was 3 months ago, which began on November 21. She has a positive urine pregnancy test. Using Naegele’s rule, which date should the nurse calculate to be the client’s estimated date of confinement (EDC)?
A | August 28 |
B | January 28 |
C | August 15 |
D | January 15 |
Question 31 |
The nurse is caring for the 24-year-old client whose pregnancy history is as follows: elective termination age 18 years, spontaneous abortion age 21 years, term vaginal delivery at 22 years old, and currently pregnant again. Which documentation by the nurse of the client’s gravidity and parity is correct?
A | G4P1 |
B | G4P2 |
C | G3Pl |
D | G2P1 |
Question 32 |
The 29-weeks-pregnant client presents to triage with decreased fetal movement. Her initial BP is 140/90 mm Hg. She states she “doesn’t feel well” and her Vision is “blurry.” Additional assessment findings include: normal reflexes, +2 proteinuria , trace pedal edema, and puffy face and hands. What is the most important information that the nurse should obtain from the client’s prenatal record?
A | Depressed liver enzymes |
B | BP at her first prenatal visit |
C | Urine dipstick from last visit |
D | The pattern of weight gain |
Question 33 |
The pregnant client presents to a clinic with ongoing nausea, vomiting, and anorexia at 29 weeks’ gestation. Her Hgb level is 5 g/dL, and a blood smear reveals that newly formed RBCs are macrocytic. Which condition should the nurse further explore?
A | Sickle cell anemia |
B | Folic acid deficiency anemia |
C | Beta-thalassemia. minor |
D | Beta-thalassemia major |
Question 34 |
The client admitted in preterm labor is told that an amniocentesis needs to be performed. The client asks the nurse why this is necessary when the HCP has been performing ultrasounds throughout the pregnancy. Which is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A | “Your baby is older now, and an amniocentesis provides us with more information on how your baby is doing.” |
B | “An amniocentesis could not be performed before 32 weeks, so you will be having this test from now until delivery.” |
C | “Your doctor wants to make sure that there are no problems with the baby that an ultrasound might not be able to identify.” |
D | “With your preterm labor your doctor needs to know your baby’s lung maturity; this is best identified by amniocentesis.” |
Question 35 |
The nurse is caring for the client admitted to the antepartum unit at 32 weeks’ gestation with possible pretemr labor. The nurse is perfonning a fetal fibronectin (fFN) test. Which event, if it occurred, would require the nurse to reacollect the specimen?
A | The specimen is collected before a vaginal examination. |
B | A lubricant was used to facilitate insertion of the swab. |
C | The client reports that she has not had intercourse for 3 days. |
D | The specimen is collected before other specimens are collected. |
Question 36 |
The nurse is teaching the client who is wishing to travel by airplane during the first 36 weeks of her pregnancy. Which is the primary risk of air travel for this client that the nurse should address?
A | Risk of preterm labor |
B | Deep vein thrombosis |
C | Spontaneous abortion |
D | Nausea and vomiting |
Question 37 |
The 42-year-old client who had a partial hydatidiform molar pregnancy 3 months ago asks the nurse whether she and her husband can try conceiving again. Which response by the nurse is incorrect and warrants follow-up action by the observing nurse manager?
A | “You will need serial levels of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (BHCG) drawn.” |
B | “You cannot conceive ever again because of your risk of choriocarcinoma.” |
C | “You should not become pregnant yet for 6 to 12 months.” |
D | “Your risk of another hydatidiform molar pregnancy is low.” |
Question 38 |
The nurse assesses the client in her third trimester with suspected placenta previa. Which finding should the nurse associate with placenta previa?
A | Cervix is 100% effaced |
B | Painless vaginal bleeding |
C | 3- The fetal lie is transverse |
D | Absence of fetal movement |
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