Nclex-Rn Practice Questions-Microbiology Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity

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Question 1

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

A	mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
B	mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.
C	skin.
D	parenteral route.
E	All of these portals are used equally.

Question 2

Which of the following mechanisms is used by gram-negative bacteria to cross the blood-brain barrier?

A	producing fimbriae
B	inducing endocytosis
C	producing toxins
D	inducing TNF
E	antigenic variation

Question 3

Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by

A	the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test.
B	counting the viable bacteria.
C	filtering out the cells.
D	looking for turbidity.
E	culturing bacteria.

Question 4

Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cause

A	infection.
B	septic shock symptoms.
C	giant cell formation.
D	nerve damage.
E	no damage, because they are sterile.

Question 5

Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat

A	viral infections.
B	gram-negative bacterial infections.
C	gram-positive bacterial infections.
D	protozoan infections.
E	helminth infestations.

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses?

A	cell death
B	host cells fusing to form multinucleated syncytia
C	inclusion bodies forming in the cytoplasm or nucleus
D	increased cell growth
E	toxin production

Question 7

Bacteria that cause periodontal disease have adhesins for receptors on streptococci that colonize on teeth. This indicates that

A	streptococci get bacterial infections.
B	streptococcal colonization is necessary for periodontal disease.
C	bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to gums and teeth.
D	bacteria that cause periodontal disease adhere to teeth.
E	streptococci cause periodontal disease.

Question 8

Nonpathogenic Vibrio cholerae can acquire the cholera toxin gene by

A	phagocytosis.
B	transduction.
C	conjugation.
D	transformation.
E	infecting a pathogenic Vibrio cholerae.

Question 9

In response to the presence of endotoxin, phagocytes secrete tumor necrosis factor. This causes

A	the disease to subside.
B	a decrease in blood pressure.
C	a fever.
D	a gram-negative infection.
E	an increase in red blood cells.

Question 10

Patients developed inflammation a few hours following eye surgery. Instruments and solutions were sterile, and the Limulus assay was positive. The patients' inflammation was due to

A	bacterial infection.
B	viral infection.
C	endotoxin.
D	exotoxin.
E	The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Question 11

Bacteria such as E. coli and Salmonella produce invasins that bind host cells, thus causing the cells to

A	release TNF.
B	produce iron-binding proteins.
C	engulf the bacteria.
D	destroy the bacteria.
E	release cytokines.

Question 12

Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells. If the gangliosides were removed,

A	polypeptide A would bind to target cells.
B	polypeptide A would enter the cells.
C	polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells.
D	Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin.
E	Vibrio would bind to target cells.

Question 13

Polio is transmitted by ingestion of water contaminated with feces containing polio virus. What portal of entry does polio virus use?

A	skin only
B	parenteral only
C	mucous membranes only
D	skin and parenteral
E	skin, parenteral, and mucous membranes

Question 14

The ability of some microbes, such as Trypanosoma or Giardia to alter their surface molecules and evade destruction by the host's antibodies is called

A	antigenic variation.
B	lysogenic conversion.
C	virulence.
D	cytopathic effect.
E	cytocidal effect.

Question 15

Most pathogens that gain access through the skin

A	can penetrate intact skin.
B	just infect the skin itself.
C	enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts.
D	must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate.
E	must be injected.

Question 16

All of the following contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness EXCEPT

A	toxins.
B	capsules.
C	cell wall components.
D	hyaluronidase.
E	coagulases.

Question 17

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A	Leukocidins destroy neutrophils.
B	Hemolysins lyse red blood cells.
C	Hyaluronidase breaks down substances between cells.
D	Kinase destroys fibrin clots.
E	Coagulase destroys blood clots.

Question 18

Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally FALSE?

A	They are more potent than endotoxins.
B	They are composed of proteins.
C	They are resistant to heat.
D	They have specific methods of action.
E	They are produced by gram-positive bacteria.

Question 19

Endotoxins are

A	associated with gram-positive bacteria.
B	molecules that bind nerve cells.
C	part of the gram-negative cell wall.
D	excreted from the cell.
E	A-B toxins.

Question 20

Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?

A	A-B toxin
B	hemolysin
C	leukocidin
D	streptolysin O
E	streptolysin S

Question 21

Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to

A	viral infections.
B	protozoan infections.
C	fungal infections.
D	bacterial infections.
E	helminthic infections.

Question 22

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the symptoms of a fungal disease?

A	capsules
B	toxins
C	allergic response of the host
D	cell walls
E	metabolic products

Question 23

All of the following are methods of avoiding host antibodies EXCEPT

A	antigenic changes.
B	IgA proteases.
C	invasins.
D	membrane-disrupting toxins.
E	inducing endocytosis.

Question 24

Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with the host's

A	antibodies.
B	red blood cells.
C	iron-transport proteins.
D	white blood cells.
E	receptors.

Question 25

The fimbriae of Neisseria gonorrhea and enteropathogenic E. coli are examples of

A	adhesins.
B	ligands.
C	receptors.
D	adhesins and ligands.
E	adhesins, ligands, and receptors.

Question 26

All of the following bacteria release endotoxin EXCEPT

A	Clostridium botulinum.
B	Salmonella typhi.
C	Neisseria meningitidis.
D	Proteus vulgaris.
E	Haemophilus influenzae.

Question 27

All of the following are examples of entry via the parenteral route EXCEPT

A	injection.
B	bite.
C	surgery.
D	hair follicle.
E	skin cut.

Question 28

Botulism is caused by ingestion of a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be prevented by

A	boiling food prior to consumption.
B	administering antibiotics to patients.
C	not eating canned food.
D	preventing fecal contamination of food.
E	filtering food.

Question 29

All of the following organisms produce exotoxins EXCEPT

A	Salmonella typhi.
B	Clostridium botulinum.
C	Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
D	Clostridium tetani.
E	Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 30

Which of the following cytopathic effects is cytocidal?

A	inclusion bodies
B	giant cells
C	antigenic changes
D	transformation
E	release of enzymes from lysosomes

Question 31

All of the following are used by bacteria to attach to host cells EXCEPT

A	M protein.
B	ligands.
C	fimbriae.
D	capsules.
E	A-B toxins.

Question 32

Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic diseases are due to

A	tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues.
B	waste products excreted by the parasite.
C	products released from damaged tissues.
D	tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues and waste products excreted by the parasite.
E	tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on the tissues, waste products excreted by the parasite, and products released from damaged tissues.

Question 33

Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is FALSE?

A	It causes vomiting.
B	It causes diarrhea.
C	It is an exotoxin.
D	It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.
E	It is a superantigen.

Question 34

Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen?

A	numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host
B	evasion of host defenses
C	toxin production
D	numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host and evasion of host defenses
E	numbers of microorganisms that gain access to a host, evasion of host defenses, and toxin production

Question 35

Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages

A	give new gene sequences to the host bacteria.
B	produce toxins.
C	carry plasmids.
D	kill the bacteria, causing release of endotoxins.
E	kill human cells.

Question 36

Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is

A	botulinum toxin.
B	aflatoxin.
C	staphylococcal enterotoxin.
D	erythrogenic toxin.
E	cholera toxin.

Question 37

Which of the following statements about M protein is FALSE?

A	It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes.
B	It is found on fimbriae.
C	It is heat- and acid-resistant.
D	It is readily digested by phagocytes.
E	It is a protein.

Question 38

Symptoms of intense inflammation and shock occur in some gram-positive bacterial infections due to

A	A-B toxins.
B	lipid A.
C	membrane-disrupting toxins.
D	superantigens.
E	erythrogenic toxin.

Question 39

Which of the following is an example of direct damage due to bacterial infection?

A	the uncontrolled muscle contractions in Clostridium tetani infection
B	the invasion and lysis of intestinal cells by E. coli
C	the hemolysis of red blood cells in a staphylococcal infection
D	the fever, nausea, and low blood pressure in a Salmonella infection
E	the excessive secretion of fluids in a Vibrio cholera infection

Question 40

Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce

A	endotoxins.
B	exotoxins.
C	cytokines.
D	leukocidins.
E	interferons.

Question 41

Gram-negative septic shock results from the following events. What is the second step?

A	Body temperature is reset in the hypothalamus.
B	Fever occurs.
C	IL-1 is released.
D	LPS is released from gram-negative bacteria.
E	Phagocytes ingest gram-negative bacteria.

Question 42

The ID50 is

A	a measure of pathogenicity.
B	the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population.
C	the dose that will kill some of the test population.
D	the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population.
E	the dose that will kill 50 percent of the test population.

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